Matthew 1
Questions and Proposed Answers
(See Accompanying Matthew 1 Literally Rendered on this site.)
Note: This document has not been finely edited. It is written during studies. Please expect to find errors in spelling, words missing, etc. If you use the document and desire to participate in editing it, please do so. I will need the number-letter address along with a partical quote of the error, and what you know or think it should say. Please send it to james842@eeweems.com.
1. a) Why is all of Matthew called the “Scroll of the generation of Messiah Yeshua…”? The entire scroll spoke of the historic generation in which Yeshua lived, but also spoke of the future generation that will believe on Him.
1. b) How long is a generation? The Bible doesn’t give an exact length to a generation. One generation lasted 40 years: that generation that came out of Egyptian bondage only to be killed off in the wilderness due to unbelief, disobedience and blatant rebellion against Yehovah’s commands. Another generation mentioned in the Bible lasts 100 years:
Genesis 15:13 And He said unto Avram, “Know of a surety that thy seed shall be a stranger in a land not theirs, and shall serve them. And they shall afflict them four hundred years. 14And I will also judge that nation whom they shall serve. And shall they come out afterward with great substance. 15And thou shalt go to thy fathers in peace. Thou shalt be buried in a good old age. 16But they shall come hither again in the fourth generation. For the iniquity of the Amorites is not yet full.
This text associates 400 years with a fourth generation, thus making an average of 100 years per generation.
1. c) What is the advantage of a scroll over a book? A scroll in which a page has been removed will show the evidence by the scroll falling into two, whereas a book can have a page torn out without the reader knowing it is missing for a long time. Even computers scroll through their pages, showing continuity. Thus, the most modern of equipment uses scroll descriptions and design.
1. d) What does Yeshua mean? This name means Salvation.
1. e) What does anointed mean? It means selected for a particular assignment, including any empowerment needed to carry out that assignment (often accompanied by the pouring of olive oil over a person’s head, signifying the stopping of bugs and other things that would inhibit a person, like a sheep, from concentrating on the appointed task). Only God or a prophet has the power to anoint.
1. f) For what purpose was Yeshua an anointed son of David? He was anointed to fulfill the Scriptures. He was anointed to:
- Be the sacrifice for sin
- Live according to the Teaching of Yehovah in a perfect manner
- Bring the announcement of the Kingdom of God/Heaven to the Israelis
- To be the Salvation of His people Israel
- To instruct regarding the End Times
- To bring every aspect of the Word of God to them that He brought
It is imperative that a reader know that Messiah had to be of specifically David’s lineage because of the promise Yehovah made.
1. g) When was Yeshua anointed?
Luke 2:25 And, behold, there was a man in Jerusalem whose name was Simeon. And the same man was righteous and devout, waiting for the consolation of Israel. And the Holy Spirit was upon him. 26And it was revealed unto him by the Holy Ghost that he should not see death before he had seen the Yehovah’s Messiah.
Yeshua was already the Messiah, therefore anointed, at eight days old. Thus, His anointing must precede His birth.
1. h) Why did He have to be the son of David? This was the proper lineage for the Messiah. He could not be of the tribe of Levi. The Levites will never produce the Messiah. Messiah is from a different priestly line (that of Melchizedek). David’s lineage is the kingly lineage, and thus it makes sense for King Messiah to be born in that lineage.
1. i) What is the significance of His being a son of Abraham? The promises went through Avraham. One of those promises was specifically to the seed, a reference to the Messiah (Galatians 3:16).
1. j) Define David: This word means lover, but is a different root from the normal word for love. It is a term that shows a particular type of affection that is far more sexual in its implications automatically than the other word ahavah that is used for love. Thus, the term dodi (directly related to David) is used in Song of Solomon over and over again: my lover.
1. k) What does Avraham mean? It means father of a crowd.
2. a) Verse 2 has a very curious detail: “Jacob childed Judah and his brethren.” Judah was not the firstborn. Why mention Judah instead of Reuben the firstborn? Verse 3 gives the answer, since this lineage will not be concerned with any other son of Jacob except Judah. This is the lineage through Judah.
2. b) What does Isaac mean? It means he will laugh.
2. c) What does Jacob mean? It means he will heel(pull). It also implies coming afterward, but not in time as much as in position. The word for heel in Hebrew is also the word showing the furthest back position. Thus, it is used as an adverb to describe something occurring afterward.
2. d) What does Judah mean? It means he confessed Yehovah.
3. a) What does Pharez mean? It means he breached.
3. b) What does Zerah mean? It means Sunrise.
3. c) What does Tamar mean? It means palm tree.
3. d) What does Hezron mean? It means either courtyard or trumpet-blast.
3. e) What does Ram mean? It means elevated.
4. a) What does Aminadav mean? It means my people is generous.
4. b) What does Nahshon mean? It means enchantment.
4. c) What does Salmon mean? It means garmented.
5. a) What does Boaz mean? It means in strength.
5. b) What does Rakhav mean? It means broad.
5. c) What does Obed mean? It means server.
5. d) What does Ruth mean? It means abundantly watered (with a good drink).
5. e) What does Jesse mean? It means he will exist.
6. a) What does Solomon mean? It means her peace.
6. b) What does Uriah mean? It means light of Yah.
7. a) What does Rehoboam mean? It means he broadened a people.
7. b) What does Avijah mean? It means my Father is Yah.
7. c) What does Asa mean? It means I will measure.
8. a) What does Jehoshaphat mean? It means Yehovah judged.
8. b) What does Jehoram mean? It means Yehovah elevated.
8. c) What does Uzziah mean? It means strength of Yah.
9. a) What does Jotham mean? It means Yehovah is perfect.
9. b) What does Akhaz mean? It means he grasped.
9. c) What does Hezekiah mean? It means Yehovah strengthened/will strengthen.
10. a) What does Manasseh mean? It means Forgetter.
10. b) What does Amon mean? It means Faith.
10. c) What does Josiah mean? It means Yah will do.
11. a) What does Jeconiah/Jehoiachin mean? It means Yah will foundation.
12. a) What does Shealtiel mean? It means I asked a mighty [one].
12. b) What does Zerubbabel mean? It means He scattered confusion.
13. a) What does Abihud mean? It means My father is majesty.
13. b) What does Eliakim mean? It means a mighty-one shall make-stand.
13. c) What does Hazor mean? It means helped.
14. a) What does Zadok mean? It means justified.
14. b) What does Joiakim/Jehoiakim mean? It means Yehovah will make-stand.
14. c) What does Elihud mean? It means My mighty-one is majesty.
15. a) What does Eleazar mean? It means Mighty [one] helped.
15. b) What does Mattan mean? It means gift.
15. c) What does Jacob mean? It means He will heel(pull).
16. a) What does Joseph mean? It means He will gather.
16. b) What does Miriam mean? It means Myrrh of the sea.
16. c) If we propose to add together all the meanings of the names given above, and if we rearrange them just a little so that adjectives are in the right order and articles (a, the) are supplied, what type of a statement is forthcoming? We propose that it will be prophetic. The following is what we derived by the above means:
Lover of Father of a crowd will laugh. He will heel(pull). He confessed Yehovah. He breached a Sunrise. Palm tree Elevated a trumpet blast. My people is generous, enchantment garmented in broad strength. A server abundantly watered (with a good drink). Lover of her peace will exist, the Light of Yah. My Father Yah broadened a people I will measure. Yehovah judged! Yehovah elevated! The Strength of Yah Yehovah is perfect. Yehovah grasped; He strengthened [and] will strengthen a forgetter of Faith. Yah will do! Yah will foundation! I asked a mighty [one]; He scattered confusion. My father is majesty! A mighty-one shall make-stand a Helped [and] Justified [one]. Yehovah will make-stand! My mighty-one is majesty. Mighty [one] helped, a gift. He will heel(pull)! Salvation will gather Myrrh of the sea.
16. d) If the above is correct, what does this mean about the process of naming children in this lineage? What took place? Yehovah is sovereign, including over the naming process. If these names together are also the Word of God (through their meanings), Yehovah made sure that all names were given exactly as He determined. That means that some names may never be used for another human again. All the parents had other children (if more than one child was born), but only those listed are important if prophecy is implanted in these names.
16. e) Are all the names mentioned the names of firstborn? No. Some will be, because the lineage of kings is among them.
If these names were meant to make a sentence that speaks of the End Times and Yeshua, this would be why some of these names were chosen instead of another sibling’s name. A number of the folks in this lineage were unrighteous, and a few were slime. Yet their names are what is important to the lineage if the names form a paragraph.
16. f) What is the difference between adding all the names together to form a supposed paragraph and skipping every other letter in order to obtain a new writing that is secret, the technique of numerologists? The differences include the following:
Connecting Names |
Skipping Letters |
This uses names that are part of open infallible Scripture. |
This is an occult (hidden) technique that has no open example. |
This employs definitions that usually can be found. |
This assumes that all scrolls have the same Hebrew letters, which they don’t. |
This is concentrating on the text. |
This is distracting from the text to find occult messages. |
This assumes that texts are literal. |
This assumes that messages are hidden; from whom are they hidden? |
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16. g) Why is Joseph mentioned in this lineage when he had nothing to do with Yeshua’s birth? Why even have a lineage of Joseph when he is a non-participant? The Bible is never meant to be read and understood in a piecemeal fashion when the other parts are available. (If they are not available, the pieces that are available may be read in this fashion, for Yehovah can supply what is missing. If they are available, however, there is no reason for Yehovah to supply what isn’t missing; He doesn’t reward laziness.) Since Luke gives the genealogy of Miriam, the reader can see where the two lineages departed from each other, and can see that both Miriam and Joseph were from David. But Joseph was from a lineage with a curse, while Miriam is from a lineage without a curse. One king in Joseph’s lineage did such a wrong that Yehovah pronounced a curse on that line. Thus, the careful reader will know that the lineage of Joseph was included fully to substantiate that there is no way that Joseph could have fathered the Messiah.
Jeremiah 36:30 Therefore thus saith Yehovah of Jehoiakim king of Judah: He shall have none to sit upon the throne of David: and his dead body shall be cast out in the day to the heat, and in the night to the frost.
From verse 14, Jehoiakim is given a specific curse: he will never have anyone to sit upon the throne of David. (This did not mean that this lineage was excluded from being greatly blessed in all other ways.) If Messiah had come through him, Messiah could not have sat on David’s throne.
16. h) Why does the text explain that Yeshua was called Messiah instead of indicating that He was and is the Messiah? The Bible usually leaves conclusions up to readers rather than telling them what to believe. This is the tenor of the entire Bible. It gives Truth in a way that a reader can easily twist it into error. It also gives Truth in a way that one who desires to know will find it presented in a most candid way.
16. i) What does Messiah mean? It means anointed. Thus, this text indicates that Yeshua is called anointed.
16. j) For what purpose was He anointed? This text states that He is anointed by using the word Messiah. He was anointed to be the sacrifice for sin. Yet this is a death issue. For what was He anointed while He lived? He was anointed to preach the Gospel of the Kingdom of God and to do many miracles.
16. ?) What is the purpose of anointing? It is not for the purpose of equipping. If it were, everyone anointed while functioning in the anointing would do right. Some are anointed to positions in which they will do violence. One king was anointed to slaughter Israelis. He was a wicked and cruel man. Anointing is not necessarily for good. Anointing is an assignment. The anointing, therefore, guarantees that a person will succeed in doing a task or series of tasks (if the person lives). Anyone who lays a hand on one anointed by Yehovah in such a way that it would stop the person from that assignment (whether good or bad) is challenging Yehovah. If a person does violence against one who is anointed without knowing that the person was anointed, that is still a violation. One man put King Saul out of his misery. He then came to David to give him the crown that King Saul wore, telling what he had done. David paid him well with a sword in his gut for his trouble. He should have known that King Saul was anointed by Yehovah. This is also why Yehovah makes sure to have anointings eventually be publicized.
An anointing is not a calling. The callings of Yehovah are always for good and for benefit (even if one is killing Palestinians). An anointing is an assignment, especially to a position. What one does in that position can greatly vary.
The only persons who are legitimately able to anoint are prophets and God. Anyone who anoints is claiming to be a prophet. Thus, if the person isn’t really a prophet, the person is a false prophet, and that is a lethal profession. The one anointing is absolutely claiming to speak for God. This includes folks who anoint for healing.
16. k) When was Yeshua anointed? The anointing was official when John baptized him.
16. l) What is the normal tool of anointing? Olive oil being poured over one’s head (in large quantities) is the normal tool; baptism is not. Yet this is when the Spirit of Yehovah came on Him to start His ministry.
16. m) Who usually anoints (in the Bible)? Only a prophet or Yehovah can anoint, since the anointing is accompanied by infallible information and an assignment of a position from God. Anyone claiming the right and power of anointing is also necessarily claiming infallibility in that anointing. The person is also claiming to prophesy, whether the person understands that or not.
I know of no seminary that refrains from anointing their graduates to the ministry.
Modern ordination is exactly the same as anointing. A person or a group is declaring that another is ordained by God to a work.
16. n) If a person, then, anoints another without being called of God to do that (with a calling that meets Biblical requirements), is that person blaspheming? Yes.
16. o) If a person anoints another with oil, then prays for the person’s recovery (not claiming that the God will heal the person), is that blasphemy? No; it is just stupid and can eventually lead that person to blaspheme.
If they pray over the person while anointing the person with oil, and their prayer is a request, they combining error with a prayer as if that error will aid the prayer in being answered. They think they are following the command in the Book of Jacob (James):
James 5:14 Is any sick among you? let him call for the elders of the church; and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord.
This text has a target (the Israelis) and a timing. It has guarantees. Folks who do not consider these things are playing.
17. a) What does this verse indicate about the definition of a Biblical generation? This verse shows that generations hang on particular families and ranks in their areas. Thus, Yehovah viewed these generations as three times 14, or 42 generations, regardless of the many other birthings and deaths that occurred at the very same time. Yehovah sees a generation in terms of one ruling or important culture and family, not in terms of death to death and birth to birth. Therefore, the term “World War II generation” is correct in Biblical terms. Three other texts speak of one thousand generations from the giving of the Covenant to Avraham to the end of the planet. Therefore Yehovah must have 1,000 specific generations in mind regardless of what is occurring in other cultures in the world. These generations must pertain to Israel, to Avraham’s offspring, the David’s lineage, and indeed to David’s lineage! These generations are attached to a particular administration. They move quickly because they depend on one person each. Other generations can outlive five or six births and deaths of fathers to sons. The Greek word genea, genea does not carry the same meaning as the Hebrew word rwd, dor. The Greek word indicates genesis, beginnings, while the Hebrew word indicates periods, ages. The three texts refer to the Hebrew generations, and we will not be able to tell how long that is until it has occurred unless Yehovah gives more information.
17. b) Why did Yehovah divide the 42 generations into threes with the first three being specifically from Avraham to David, the second three being from David to the carrying away of Babylon, and the third being from the carrying away of Babylon to Messiah? Doesn’t this mean that the last of the first two sets also is the first of the last two sets, making it two less than 42? The ending of the first two sets took place during the administration of the last generation. Thus, David both oversaw the ending of the 14th generation AND oversaw the first of the 15th generation. The same is true of the Babylonian exile; it ended one generation, and it also began a new generation. Thus, it is mentioned twice. These divisions are because (I propose) Israel was not important as a world power before King David’s time. Israel became a true world power during King David’s administration, and was a major force in the Middle East until the Babylonian captivity. Then Israel resumed being a minor force in the world with very few exceptions. (We are living during a curious exception.)
18. a) What is so important about giving the details of Yeshua’s birth?
- This is necessary to show regarding the virgin birthing a child while she is still in her virginity.
- This shows the responses of the various folks involved.
- This shows how Yehovah communicates and does when His plan is being directly activated.
- This shows how others not directly involved responded to Yeshua’s birth.
- This shows the controversies over His birth.
- These details demonstrate prophetic fulfillment (in a few cases).
18. b) Does this verse claim that Yeshua was indeed anointed? Yes! It is part of the text.
18. c) What does betrothed mean? It does not mean promised, and it does not mean engaged. It means that they are fully husband and wife, but they have not sexually consummated the marriage. The only way to break a betrothal is through a divorce.
18. d) What type of ceremony occurred at a betrothal? The ceremony wasn’t at the betrothal. The betrothal instead was a covenant or an agreement of some type akin to the purchase of a house or the selling of a mule. The folks who make this betrothal agreement can be parents or can be the adults themselves who are about to be betrothed. Many factors can determine who does what. Kings would sometimes use diplomats to become betrothed.
18. e) Who participated in the betrothal agreement between Miriam and Joseph? The text does not say. It only states, “having been betrothed” as if Miriam was either not the one doing the betrothal or that she was already betrothed to him at the time indicated in this verse.
18. f) How old were Miriam and Joseph at the time of this betrothal? The text doesn’t say. Assuming an age for them will lead to error, not truth.
18. g) Who found Miriam to be pregnant? We can’t tell who was the first to determine that she was pregnant. She did not tell anyone that she was pregnant; she hid the information in her heart. There is no indication that she discussed this with Joseph. He was clueless regarding what was occurring.
18. f) This verse states that she was found pregnant from the Spirit of the Holy One. Who would have known that the source of the child was Yehovah’s Spirit? This isn’t referring to what humans determined, but instead what Yehovah and the angels knew. No human except Miriam knew. And Miriam found herself pregnant. She had been told that she would become pregnant, but she didn’t know when. Luke 1 explains, and does not include a timing for the pregnancy nor even that she knew when the conception occurred. She only knew that it would occur.
18. g) What is significant if she was found to be pregnant before they came together? She would know that the testimony of the angel was true; she would certainly know if Joseph and she had had sexual intercourse. Readers who believe the text would also know that no sexual act of a man took place before the pregnancy.
18. h) Could Miriam and Joseph participate in sexual intercourse after she was found pregnant? The issue is not whether they could have done that; it is instead that they didn’t:
Matthew 1:25 And he knew her not until she brought forth her son—the firstborn.
19. a) What was Joseph planning to do (described as putting her away)? He was planning to divorce her. She was pregnant; she had not stated how that came about; he would not be able to trust her.
19. b) Could he have suspected that Messiah’s being born of a virgin might have been fulfilled in Miriam? Wouldn’t Joseph, a spiritual man, have thought that Miriam could have been the bearer of the Messiah? Joseph’s spirituality was of a nature to not presume or assume without evidence. He would know that Yehovah could do as Yehovah desired, but that didn’t mean that he would give a pregnant woman that means of escaping her participation even in the plan of God without some type of evidence or proof.
19. c) Would Joseph have known Miriam very well, or would they have been betrothed without knowing each other? Had parents arranged the marriage, they would have known each other in most cases (unless the marriage was for power or wealth). Parents normally knew each other before ‘selling’ their children together. I have found no indication of parental participation in the betrothal of Joseph and Miriam. My impression is that Joseph was older. His reaction to her pregnancy doesn’t sound like a 20-year-old.
19. d) What is the difference between the two following statements?
“Joseph her husband secretly purposed to put her away”
or
“Joseph her husband purposed to put her away secretly”
In the first statement, he was planning in secret: Miriam would not know. In the second statement, he was going to put her away in a manner that others would not find out he had done that in order to save her from shame.
19. e) Which of the above is correct? The first is correct: “Joseph her husband secretly purposed to put her away” as if he would not tell her until he did it. Yet the rest of the verse shows that his intention was to not publicly expose her.
19. f) What does his being righteous have to do with his unwillingness to expose her publicly?
Deuteronomy 24:1 When a man hath taken a woman and married her, and it come to pass that she finds no favour in his eyes because he has found some uncleanness in her, and he shall write her a bill of divorcement and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. 2And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man’s.
If Joseph had ruined her reputation, he would have drastically cut the possibility of her becoming another man’s (wife). He was going to do according to the Torah, and not taint her in the process. Joseph had no proof that she had been whoring around. All he knew was that she was pregnant, and had not explained to him how that had come about. For all he knew, she might have been raped.
19. g) How did Joseph know that Miriam was pregnant? Was she showing? Yes, she was showing, but that may not be the full explanation. Thanks to Kristen, I add the following thoughts: In Luke 1, Miriam goes to see Elizabeth. In verse 1:43 Elizabeth seems to be speaking in the present tense when she says, “the mother of my Lord should come to me” as though Miriam is already with child. Miriam stays with Elizabeth about 3 months according to Luke 1:56. At the time of her return, if Miriam is with child, she could be showing entering possibly her 4th month. Word of mouth about Elizabeth’s exclamation could have gotten to others and then to Joseph. I know the text does not tell specifically. (Thank you, Kristen, for that correction.)
19. h) Did folks gossip about them after they did come together? Absolutely. That was a scourge that they both faced. Some knew that the child was from Yehovah; most didn’t. A prophet and a prophetess both publicly spoke of His being the promised one, the Messiah. Anyone challenging them would be calling them false prophets. Thus, there was a split in Israel over Yeshua’s legitimacy.
20. a) What was he pondering? He was pondering about her pregnancy and how to divorce her without publicly exposing her. He also would have been pondering the hurt and heartbreak that he was experiencing.
20. b) Why did the angel of Yehovah wait to appear to him at this last moment, thus increasing Joseph’s suffering? The question is flawed. The angel didn’t wait; Yehovah didn’t dispatch the angel until this time. Therefore, the question must be address to Yehovah’s timing. Why did Yehovah wait? Yehovah often waits. This is how Joseph’s character is shown. Joseph’s character was right and righteous up to the very point at which he was going to act. This character aspect was exposed to all readers of the Bible.
20. c) Why did the angel appear to Joseph in a dream instead of in person? Joseph did not need a personal appearance to believe what he was told. That dream was enough for Joseph, showing Joseph’s character. Others might have insisted on or needed a personal appearance.
20. d) How can an angel appear in a dream? If Yehovah has sent an angel to a person to appear in a dream, Yehovah will give that angel interactivity in that dream. Yehovah is sovereign over dreams.
20. e) Why did the angel refer to Joseph as “Yoseph ben David,” or “Joseph son of David” when Yoseph’s father was another Jacob (verse 16 above)? Joseph was in the direct lineage of King David. Yet this had nothing to do with Yeshua, since Yeshua did not come from Joseph. Still, the angel recognized that Yeshua’s caretaker was as much from King David’s lineage as Yeshua’s mother, though through separate lines. This connection with the righteous King David was a very good way to refer to Joseph.
20. f) The next statement (“Fear not to take to Miriam thy wife”) implies that Joseph may have feared to take Miriam his wife. Is this true? If so, explain. Because the angel had complete information, the reader can rightly assume that Joseph did fear to take her as his wife. (They were already married!)
20. g) Why did Joseph fear to take his wife Miriam? I will propose some ideas why he feared:
- Joseph knew that her reputation in this community was ruined; her living there would be torture.
- Joseph’s own reputation could easily be ruined such that his business would be greatly diminished because he had taken a tarnished woman in spite of her being tarnished.
- Joseph had not heard the true events from Miriam; she had not said a word. How could Joseph deal well with a woman who could experience something as important as a pregnancy, yet not speak to him about it? How could he participate in her happiness when he had no idea of the events that led to it?
- How would Joseph know whether she would be faithful to him if she could become pregnant by some other means even while they were married (and they were already married!)?
20. h) Explain the wording of “What is in her is holy”: The baby is the object of the pronoun what. This is no insult, but was a normal expression. Since the child was described as holy, the child was owned. The angel didn’t specify the owner, but the sender of the angel sent to let Joseph know that that child was owned, implying Yehovah as the Owner.
20. i) What does “what is in her is begotten of the Spirit” mean? This directly links Yeshua to the Spirit of Yehovah. Thus, anyone who challenges Yeshua’s station is challenging the Spirit of Yehovah, according to this text.
21. a) Who was assigned to call the child’s name Salvation? (Who is thou?) The first pointer is to Joseph. He has been given an assignment, and thus he is now involved. Then, this text is prophetic, for all Israel will call His Name Salvation.
21. b) Whom will He save, according to this verse? He will save His people from their sins. His people refers to the People of Israel, and no other group.
21. c) What is a people? It is a group of individuals with a common culture. A nation on the other hand is exactly the same as a race. The United States is not a nation in the Biblical sense, but the Cherokee is a nation in the Bible sense. The United States is an empire in the Biblical sense (regardless of its form of government) since an empire encompasses numerous races and peoples.
21. d) What event is this when He will save His people from their sins? The provision is in the crucifixion. The event is during the Tribulation, since this refers to the entire people.
21. e) How will He do this? He is the sacrifice and the substitute. Numerous texts describe this event. Some even tell how. For one thing, He will call, and they will answer. His Goodness will draw them to repentance—His Goodness, and not the terrible things going on.
21. f) If this is the case, why didn’t this happen long ago? The Israelis will not be ready for this until the time of the Tribulation. A strange set of events will make them ready, but they will not be made ready by Tribulation itself. If they were, they would be ready by the middle of the Tribulation. Instead, they will be ready by some time in the 7th year. Apart from this, I don’t know what means Yehovah will use. It won’t be a case of His sovereignly overruling their hearts. That would eliminate faith.
Romans 2:4 Or despisest thou the riches of His Goodness and forbearance and longsuffering, not knowing that the Goodness of God leads thee to repentance?
21. g) What will be the effect of his (the people’s) being saved from the sins of the Israelis? The effect will be that the Israelis will become free of sin, and will stay free of sin.
22. a) Look at the wording: “Now this all came to pass that what was spoken by Yehovah through the prophet will be fulfilled.” What is this statement communicating? The first part of the statement is: “Now this all came to pass.” This describes a historical event. This event occurred, but it occurred for a reason that had nothing to do with the event itself. The text continues, “that what was spoken by the Yehovah through the prophet;” this is a reference to a historical prophecy, telling that these things had already been declared. The last part of the statement is what is so curious, for it states, “that what was spoken by Yehovah through the prophet will be fulfilled” in the future. It has not yet occurred, and will not occur until the End Times. Most all of what was spoken by the prophet has yet to be fulfilled.
23. a) If the above answer is correct, what in verse 23 has yet to be fulfilled? The meaning of the name Immanuel declares a future event, since the Mighty One of Israel is not yet among the Israelis in person. They cannot declare, “God is with us!” and be right. He may show His hand on their behalf, but abiding with them awaits a future time.
The command, “Behold the pregnant virgin!” has never been obeyed. When Israel finally beholds the pregnant virgin, Israel will see Israel’s Son. That will be when they believe.
The item that hasn’t been fulfilled is this: “they shall call His Name Immanuel,” the Israelis believing that He is indeed God with them.
23. b) What is the difference between the statement, “Behold the pregnant virgin” and “A virgin shall conceive”? One difference is that the first refers to the present tense, while the second declares what will occur. Another difference is this: The first declares the pregnancy of a virgin, something that cannot normally happen. The second declares that a virgin shall or will conceive, something that happens every day. It isn’t worded right. Virgins can easily conceive, though their virginity has been removed by the sexual act that leads to conception. In other words, the normal wording easily leads to doubt regarding the possibility of the miraculous aspect.
24. a) Who aroused Joseph from sleep? It appears that either the angel or the dream aroused him. (If it were a farm animal, the text didn’t say.)
24. b) Does this verse indicate some form of speed on the part of Joseph? It seems to indicate this. If this were not the case, the arousal from sleep would have been superfluous information.
24. c) How often is a man ordered to take his own wife in the Bible? I can think of no instance.
24. d) What does this wording show about the legal relationship between Joseph and Miriam? It shows that they were already legally married; the word wife is found in the Greek (or woman, if you prefer).
24. e) What did the taking of a wife (or woman) involve? The taking involves a living quarters that is in common. Once they are living under the same roof, the woman has been taken. She was already married to him.
25. a) Did he ever know her? Yes. They had children. (Some do not believe this; they figure she remained a virgin, and in their eyes, maintained purity. This ignores at least one text describing Yeshua as having a brother.)
Galatians 1:19 But other of the apostles saw I none, save James the Lord’s brother.
25. b) Did Joseph obey the angel of Yehovah? Yes; he called the child’s name Salvation (Yeshua).
25. c) Did Miriam ever directly explain to Joseph what had occurred? We don’t know.